When someone (codenamed Monsieur X) shouts out an obscenity in the office that offends Mademoiselle Y, we all agree this is unacceptable. But what if Monsieur X shouts out something obscene in another language (that we shall call Frenchese) that he himself doesn't understand, that only Mademoiselle Y understands. Has he committed a crime, or can he be possibly be innocent? In a court of law, ignorance is no defence. But morally, is he at fault? After all, to him, he has spoken innocuous words.
What would the great philosophers make of this conundrum were we to tell them about this incident that really did occur a few days ago. Descartes, Aristotle, Nietzsche, please give us a signal.
"...that he doesn't understand himself" still has to be proven!
ReplyDeleteLewk
ReplyDeleteCan you please tell us what Monsieur X said?
This is what was said (very loudly) -
ReplyDelete"B??s moi"
Not enough information, Lewk.
ReplyDeleteWas the comment directed at the mademoiselle?
What message was the monsieur trying to convey?
I am sure HR can provide you with a suitable answer :)
ReplyDelete